I'm going from a '96 to '05 swing arm for the upgraded rear caliper. I scored one on ebay with 450 miles on it. I have a new bearing set in hand. The manual says never to mix bearings and press in the new races. BUT..... with only 450 miles, maybe they're still "new" and I can run the new bearings? I'm worried I'll do more damage pressing in the new races. When I put the new bearings in the existing race, it "feels" perfect, but what do I know?

If this was a high speed roller bearing like on the crank, I'd be more worried. But I'm hoping it's not as critical on a swing arm bearing.

 

I think you'd be ok considering the very limited travel it has. I agree, if it was a spinner, I'd be more apt to swap the races out. As it is, I'd move on with the swap.

 

Yeah screw it, I'm just going to put it together. I doubt I'll ever put enough miles on it to make a difference.

 

If you have the means, measure the race and bearing. Ideally, you want no more than 0.0010" difference. Anything more than 0.0025" is dangerous.

 

It fits!

 

Are you fitting a fatter tire?

 

Nope, same width as before. 130 rear tire

 

I did the same job about 10 years ago, never changed the races and never had a problem over 15k miles ago. This is on a 1997 Wide Glide with a 2000 Dealer take off swing arm.

Last year I changed the belt to the narrow 1-1/8" with an older HD conversion kit. Now I am running a 150 rear tire with no other mods.

 

Oh, I also swapped out the lower legs to get the four piston on the front, nice project that no one will ever notice on your bike. But it will stop a lot better.

 

Nice. What does the 1-1/8" conversion entail? Have the part number?

I already upped my fronts to 4 piston GSXR-750 sportbike calipers.

(older pic)